In the previous discussion on this blog about certain matters scriptural (can you tell I’ve been brushing up some of my Romantic languages?) my main contention has been the rebutting of certain doctrines and myths concerning the Protestant Bible based on the Doctrine of Inerrancy. Some people may not know what this doctrine entails, so let’s look at the definition:
Biblical Inerrancy: Biblical Inerrancy is the view that the Bible is the inspired Word of God and is in every detail infallible and without error.
Most of time time, especially in the Pentecostal sects, this is taken to mean that the Bible should be taken in its most literal context. The reasoning for this is that God is perfect, and as such, all His actions are perfect as well. When communicating with a fallen race (humanity), God needed to impart His wisdom in the most literal way possible for humanity to come to a more perfect realization of His Presence. While this is a very rough paraphrasing of the ideology, I just do not have the inclination to go into the whole doctrine in this article.
When reading the Bible with this type of an interpretation in mind, one will come across passages that
seemingly contradict each other. In order for Scriptural Inerrantists to harmonize these passages, various modes of interpretation are implemented. The foremost of these would be eisegesis. Some people who are involved with critical, methodological interpretation of the Scripture may cringe at this, citing that the main method of interpretation would be exegesis, but as has been seen by the plethora of differing sects, denominations, and personal inclinations of the interpreters, a broad basis of consensus may be established to the fact that what is generally considered to be exegesis in methodology is nothing more but eisegesis. Another important tool to most Biblical researches is the process of Hermenuetics. While there are some very important aspects involved with the application of hermeneutics, especially in those areas that were broadened by Heidegger and current philosophers in semiotics, when it comes to critical interpretation of the Scriptures, most hermeneutical methodologies are left out because of the subjective nature of interpolation of personal philosophy and opinion into the texts at hand.
Now, given these tools for the harmonization of certain passages that may contradict each other, should we see a resolution of the apparent contradictions? Maybe in certain morality scenes, but the issue remains especially contentious in regards to facts, history, geography, and other areas of interest that the Bible seemingly gets wrong. For instance, in the classification of foods into either an unclean category or a clean one, the Bible states:
Leviticus 11:6 And the hare, because he cheweth the cud, but divideth not the hoof; he is unclean unto you.
Now, when interpreting Scripture in accordance to the inerrancy doctrine, one must keep in mind that the doctrine states nothing about the translated copies, so to the original language we go! There, we find that the Hebrew word used for cud is ‘Gerah’, which in its most literal sense means ‘Bring up the cud’. Anyone who has dealt with rabbits should know that they have a disgusting habit of eating their own dung. I’m sure there is a perfectly plausible scientific reason for this, but it remains disgusting. Nonetheless, if this particular passage were an indictiment against rabbits based on their eating habits, then shouldn’t the phrase have used the Hebrew word for ‘dung’? There does exist in Hebrew a word for dung, which was not used in this passage. Here, we see that all methods of interpretation for this passage fails to harmonize the Bible with known facts. The passage is plainly errant, which is a strike against the inerrancy doctrine.
However, in matters Scriptural, the doctrine goes even further! The premise is that God is perfect, and by definition and corollary, does everything perfectly. Another premise is that God is good, being the exemplified incarnation of the Platonic Ideal of Goodness. Hence, the original translations should be infallible when it comes to facts, figures, history, science, morality, and everything else the Scriptures touch on. It is here, at this juncture, that we turn from the more mundane aspects of Scripture and instead concentrate upon the morality inherent within the passages, thus bringing us full circle to the Slavery debate.
The arguments is this: God is perfect, and the perfect encapsulation of what is termed Good. As such, He cannot do anything imperfectly. Since He is both Good and Perfect, then when He lays down the laws of morality, He does so in the perfect conceptualization of said morality. Therefore, His moral code should not contain anything that is immoral, nor support immoral actions. Granted, there are a lot of fallacies within this argument, but this is not mine own argument that I’m defending, as this is the line of defense that many Pentecostal ministers and preachers use in their apologetics of the Bible. In this line of reasoning, combined with the doctrine of inerrancy, all that is written in the Bible is the Revealed Word of God, and as such should condemn those institutions that advocate immoral actions and modes of thought.
At this point, we get back to the original argument: Where is the condemnation of Slavery? Nowhere in the Scriptures do we see a blanket dismissal of the Institution of Slavery. In the stead of the expected condemnation of this practice, we see Scripture after Scripture that lays down guidelines for the treatment of slaves, to their procurement, to how slaves should react to their masters. Clearly, the Bible is errant in it’s morality in the upholding and justification for slavery.
For instance, in Exodus 21:20-21, we see that it is entirely permissible to severely beat a slave, as long as the slave does not die within a day or two. If we are to believe as the fundamentalists believe, and take this passage literally, then we would be remiss in our duties to examine fully the nature of the situation and to bring moral judgement upon it. Today, if this were done, there would be a loud and thunderous outcry against the practice! However, this was just one of the passages in regard to slavery that is in need of serious harmonization. The proper approach is to put the passage in its proper context both in history, culture, and surrounding texts. From this, one can come up with a myriad of ‘interpretations’ to come up with an explanation of why the passage should not be read they way it was written, but these are the worst sort of hermeneutics. In fact, all justifications for harmonization of these Scriptures lies firmly within the mode of interpretation of eisegesis- reading into the passage that which you expect to find.
While the Law laid down the guidelines for the slave trade (indeed, the act of purchasing a human being makes you part of the slave trade), there are those who will insist that the New Testament abrogated this doctrine, and that all slaves should be free. Except for these passages:
Ephesians 6:5-7 5 Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ.
6 Obey them not only to win their favor when their eye is on you, but like slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from your heart.
7 Serve wholeheartedly, as if you were serving the Lord, not men,
I Timothy 6:1 1 All who are under the yoke of slavery should consider their masters worthy of full respect, so that God’s name and our teaching may not be slandered.
Colossians 3:22 22 Slaves, obey your earthly masters in everything; and do it, not only when their eye is on you and to win their favor, but with sincerity of heart and reverence for the Lord.
Titus 2:9 9 Teach slaves to be subject to their masters in everything, to try to please them, not to talk back to them,
1 Peter 2:18-22 18 Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.
19 For it is commendable if a man bears up under the pain of unjust suffering because he is conscious of God.
20 But how is it to your credit if you receive a beating for doing wrong and endure it? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure it, this is commendable before God.
21 To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.
Clearly, it can be seen that from beginning to end of the Bible, the Bible supported slavery. While there are many regulations on the institution, there does not exist one verse commending slavery as the vile, immoral institution that it is!
Of course, in this debate, there has been much contention over Galatians 3:28. However, when the whole chapter is read one finds that this is not an indictment of the institution of slavery, but rather an admonition that the Gospel is for all, based on Faith, irrespective of racial, sexual, or cultural disposition.
To wit, we return to my main point, which is that the institution of Slavery was not abolished because of Christianity, but in spite of it. Exegesis, eisegesis, and hermeneutics all fail to harmonize these passages with morality, and shows that the Doctrine of Inerrancy is false.
However, June, I believe, has asserted a false correlation. Mainly, the point was that slavery was abolished in the West, and the West was Christian, so therefore Christianity was responsible for the abolishment of the practice. This viewpoint neglects the major social and scientific, not to mention philosophical, revolutions that were part of the Enlightenment, which had much more to do with the improvement of our lives than Fundamentalist Christianity.